Barack Obama's Stance on Homosexuality is Sin

Post date: May 11, 2012 5:09:05 PM

Disclaimer: Less Than An Amateur Theologian does not condone discrimination, hatred, violence, nor any other mindsets and behavior against any person or group of people. The purpose of this topic is to review the historical text of the Bible.

I have seen many postings on Obama's condoning homosexual marriage. The worst that I have seen was on NPR.org stating that the Bible was infavor of homosexuality. They cite the tried and true arguement that Jesus commands use to love God and love your neighbor. They rightfully assert that Jesus did not directly address the topic of homosexuality. To this, I have the following to say.

One cannot simply say that homosexuality is or is not Biblical based on an absence of statement by Jesus the Christ in the New Testament. Instead, all things must be read within both context of the time and context of the Word itself.

In Jesus' teachings, He ministered to the Jews first. The Jews were under the Levitical codes which state that homosexuality is forbidden. (Lev 20:13) It expressly states that this is an abomination. So, for any Jew, homosexuality was not just taboo, but punishable by death. During this time of Jesus' ministry, He really didn't have to bring forth teaching on homosexuality, but rather holiness (which was lost over the years). In Matthew 5:17, Jesus affirms that He did not come to destroy the law, but to fulfill it. If Jesus (who is God) contradicted the law, would He not be destroying it?

When Jesus approached the gentiles, His ministry was more about establishing that God is the one true God. His purpose here would have to have been to show that God is greater than the idols and false deities of the gentile world. Hebrews 6:17 notes that God's counsel does not change. He does not contradict Himself (by extension). So, if God's console does not change, why would He condone homosexuality in the New Testiment if it was an abomination in the Old Testament?

I'm sure that you'll ask, what about the adulteress in the New Testament that Jesus forgave. In John 8:11, Jesus forgave her. He then both affirmed that her adultery was sinful and told her to cease. He said that she should sin no more. In every instance of forgiveness, Jesus commanded the person to stop their sinning.

So, what does the New Testament say about homosexuality?

Start with Romans 1:24-28:

Rom 1:24 Wherefore God also gave them up to uncleanness through the lusts of their own hearts, to dishonour their own bodies between themselves:

Rom 1:25 Who changed the truth of God into a lie, and worshipped and served the creature more than the Creator, who is blessed for ever. Amen.

Rom 1:26 For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature:

Rom 1:27 And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet.

Rom 1:28 And even as they did not like to retain God in their knowledge, God gave them over to a reprobate mind, to do those things which are not convenient

It doesn't get much clearer than that. The passage starts off with talking about how they defile their own bodies, then describes it as men with men and women with women. In the same passage, it states that God surrendered them over to (proper translation of "gave them up") their shameful ("vile") desires. God is just letting go of these people and allowing them to have their unholy desires in place of a relationship with Him. In order to get such desires, they had to misinterpret/change God's truth. This is the only way a person can live in the sin of homosexuality and assert that God blesses their behavior.

Part of the way people change the truth of God is by forcing wrongful interpretations of the Bible. For instance, in 1 Corinthians 6:9, the term Arsenokoites is traditionally translated as homosexual. The literal meaning of the word is "male bedder". I have heard it said that male bedders were older men who had sex with younger boys. The truth of the matter is found in the Septuagint. The Septuagint was the Greek translation of the Old Testament. This was used because the Roman Empire forced Greek onto the people they ruled. So, as a way of making the Old Testament accessible to the public, it was extremely-carefully translated to Greek by Hebrew scribes. The passage reads something like this...

Kai hos an koimao meta arseno koite gune bdelugma poieo thanatoo enochos eimi

The word "arsenokoites" would be derrived from a combination of the two words in that passage. Since that passage was understood to mean homosexual, the meaning would carry.

At the end of the day, the homosexual has to make up their mind. Do they serve God or their own sexuality? If their God is the Lord of lords and God over all, then they should cease their abominable lifestyle and turn to Him.

As Christians, it is our duty to be available for such people. We should not condemn them, but treat them with love and respect. Not the worldly love, which allows all forms of sin, but the Godly love that encourages people to grow and mature.

Keep in mind that homosexuality is sin, but so is not being a proper representative of Christ.